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Exam : OMG UM0-411
Title : OMG OCRES-Advanced Exam

1. What is one difference between service level software and application level software?
A. Service level software always provides real-time guarantees on execution time, while application level software does not.
B. Application level software always forms the core "building bricks" of software systems while service level software is always portable across different hardware.
C. Application level software provides the functionality and behavior required of the system while service level software provides application-independent functionality.
D. Service level software always provides the same set of operations regardless of environment, while application level software provide a consistent programming interface.
Answer: C

2. What is the difference between static and dynamic variables?
A. Static variables are used to save memory space in lieu of dynamic variables.
B. Static variables have global visibility while dynamic variables are restricted to individual components.
C. Static variables have a set value for the lifetime of the program, while dynamic variables can change value as determined by the program.
D. Static variables exist for as long as the program runs, while dynamic variables are created and destroyed by the program and scoping rules.
Answer: D

3. Which is an example of a performance modeling tool?
A. spreadsheet
B. discrete event simulator
C. transaction rate analyzer
D. software configuration manager
Answer: B

4. How does a pure tree decomposition differ from a general hierarchical decomposition?
A. Different modules share standard subroutines.
B. Leaf-functions are shared between many different modules.
C. ‘Building-brick’ functions are NOT shared between modules.
D. System branch prediction can be used to increase performance.
Answer: C

5. A Rate Monotonic Schedule sets task priorities according to what?
A. task laxity
B. task deadline
C. system mode
D. length of a task’s period
Answer: D

6. Which statement is true about the feasibility of a Rate Monotonic Schedule?
A. It CANNOT be determined precisely.
B. It can be determined only for the highest priority task.
C. It can be determined for any set of task deadlines with bounded execution times.
D. It can be determined for any number of periodic tasks with bounded execution times.
Answer: D

7. Programs devised using functional structuring are based on what?
A. abstract machines organized in layers
B. data processed by individual statements
C. functions operating on shared structures
D. independent functions organized in parallel
Answer: A

8. What does performance engineering start with?
A. creating a predictable system architecture
B. choosing an appropriately predictable scheduling policy
C. defining the performance requirements for the target system
D. defining a set of performance tests to determine that requirements will be met
Answer: C

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Exam : OMG UM0-401
Title : OMG OCRES – Intermediate Exam

1. Which two statements about static memory allocation are true? (Choose two.)
A. Garbage collection is not required.
B. Memory fragmentation does not occur.
C. Memory allocation units are always the same fixed size.
D. Tasks must inform the run-time (e.g., operating system) the total amount of memory they will need before they begin requesting memory.
Answer: AB

2. Which two of these techniques would successfully avoid mutual exclusion deadlocks? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a circular dependency of tasks and resources
B. Allow a task’s use of a resource to be pre-empted
C. Require tasks to acquire and use only one resource at a time
D. Require tasks to acquire resources in order of the tasks’ priorities
Answer: BC

3. A scheduler runs tasks to completion instead of pre-empting tasks by time slicing or according to priority. What two actions will occur? (Choose two.)
A. Maximize the number of completed tasks per unit of time
B. Minimize the task scheduling and context switching overheads
C. Honor the commitment made to complete the task once it has begun executing
D. Share the processor time fairly among ready tasks
Answer: BC

4. POSIX _____.
A. is the same as UNIX
B. is not designed for real-time systems
C. does not support asynchronous I/O
D. is an operating system interface standard
Answer: D

5. What two actions must occur in systems that use overlaying with a disk drive backing store? (Choose two.)
A. Only data is stored on the disk and code is stored in RAM.
B. A task executing in RAM can also execute code that is stored on the disk.
C. The operating system must prevent each task in RAM from accessing RAM outside the area reserved for it.
D. The code for the currently executing tasks is stored in RAM and that for the currently inactive tasks is stored on the disk, as managed by the operating system.
Answer: CD

6. Which two statements are true of a monitor for synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. No concurrent access by tasks is allowed to any resource(s) within a monitor.
B. One monitor may encapsulate any number of resources and their synchronization functions.
C. If a requesting task enters a monitor but finds the resource isn’t available, the task exits the monitor and is placed at the end of the monitor’s external queue.
D. If two tasks are waiting in a monitor’s queues for separate resources, when the task that has been accessing a resource finishes doing so, all the queues with waiting tasks are served round-robin.
Answer: AB

7. An example of a module exhibiting temporal cohesion is a combination of _____.
A. the control and management of two onboard hardware clocks
B. a 40 millisecond periodic navigation function and a 40 millisecond periodic display update function
C. several mathematical functions such as the sine, cosine, and arctangent functions
D. the vehicle speed and acceleration management functions
Answer: B

8. Which two are POSIX real-time extensions? (Choose two.)
A. suspend / resume API’s
B. direct cyclic executive support
C. task synchronization
D. priority-based preemptive task scheduling
Answer: CD

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Exam : OMG UM0-200
Title : omg-certified uml professional intermediate exam

1. An encapsulated classifier is characterized by which fact?
A. has an encapsulation shell
B. can own one or more ports
C. hides information from other classifiers
D. acts as a package and can own one or more classifiers
Answer: B

2. Which is true of a provided interface associated with a port?
A. represents an interface that must be defined within the classifier that owns the port
B. identifies the services that the object owning the port expects of objects connected via that port
C. identifies the services that the object owning the port can offer to other objects connected via that port
D. represents an interface that must be defined in the same package in which the classifier owning the port is defined
Answer: C

3. What statements are true about a composite structure? (Choose two)
A. Collaborations are structured classifiers.
B. A structured classifier is also an encapsulated classifier.
C. Structured classifiers cannot contain instances of structured classifiers.
D. Destroying an instance of a structured classifier normally destroys instances of its parts.
E. The behavior of a structured classifier must be completely defined through the collaboration of owned or referenced instances.
Answer: AD

4. What is an invocation action on a port used for?
A. sending a message to that port
B. receiving a message on that port
C. creating a link and attach it to that port
D. relaying the invocation via links connected to that port
E. invoking the behavior of the classifier that owns the port
Answer: D

5. To what does an internal structure of a class refer?
A. the inheritance structure of that class
B. the set of nested classifiers of that class
C. the set of structural features of that class
D. class and associations owned by that class
E. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected parts
Answer: E

6. What interface restrictions does a port have?
A. multiple required interfaces or multiple provided interfaces
B. multiple provided interfaces and multiple required interfaces
C. equal numbers of provided interfaces and required interfaces
D. exactly one provided interface or exactly one required interface
E. exactly one required interface and exactly one provided interface
Answer: B

7. What does the composite structure notation in the exhibit mean?
A. Class C has internal structure.
B. Object c1 is a kind of component.
C. Port p is connected to an object called F.
D. Port p realizes the features defined by interface F.
E. Port p requires the features defined by interface F.
Answer: E

8. What is NOT a purpose of a port owned by a classifier?
A. serves as an end point for connectors
B. specifies an association to the classifier
C. hides the internals of that classifier from other classifiers
D. provides a distinct point of interaction between the classifier and its environment
Answer: B

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Exam : OMG UM0-100
Title : OMG-Certified UML Professional Fundamental Exam

1. What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C

2. What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Answer: B

3. What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Answer: D

4. What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary or Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are further imported into WebShop.
Answer: E

5. What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Answer: AD

6. 0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C
2. What is a relationship in UML 2.0?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Answer: E

7. Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?"
E. " "
Answer: C

8. What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Answer: A

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Exam : OMG UM0-300
Title : omg-certified uml professional advanded exam

1. In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. eight
D. none
Answer: B

2. An association class possesses the properties of which elements? (Choose two)
A. class
B. interface
C. constraint
D. expression
E. association
Answer: AE

3. What does a collaboration occurrence describe?
A. a particular aspect of a collaboration
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
D. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
Answer: D

4. What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
D. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

5. What is a power type?
A. classifier containing a very large number of instances
B. classifier whose instances are objects of another classifier
C. classifier whose instances are operations of another classifier
D. classifier whose instances are subclasses of another classifier
Answer: D

6. What is the correct interpretation for the multiplicities in the exhibit?
A. each Company has one Job, where each Job has one employee
B. each Job is for one employer and one employee, each Company has any number of employees and each Person has any number of employers
C. each Person has at most one Job for any number of Company objects and each Company has at most one Job for any number of Person objects
D. each Job has any number of employers and any number of employees, each Company has any number of employees, and each Person has any number of employers
Answer: B

7. How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
B. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
C. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
Answer: D

8. Which stereotype is used on a dashed arrow joining an instance value to a constructor?
A. <<new>>
B. <<make>>
C. <<create>>
D. <<construct>>
E. <<initialize>>
Answer: C